From: Jonathan Ryder (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Tue Feb 23 1999 - 14:21:52 EST
Oops meant to send to list (sorry James)
> William B. Steidtmann wrote:
> > >In "Figures of Speech Used in the Bible" by E.W. Bullinger (Baker Book
> > >House, Grand Rapids, Michigan) a disscussion of the phrase "this is my
> > >body" from Matthew 26:26 is taken up (pp. 738-739) as it relates to a
> > >"simple law of figurative language". The argument is as follows: the
> > >pronoun "this" in the Greek is TOUTO and the gender is neuter. If the
> > >statement "this is my body" were meant to be taken in a literal sense the
> > >pronoun would have taken the gender of the noun it replaces which in this
> > >case is "bread", in the Greek ARTOS, and is masculine. But the pronoun
> > >TOUTO is not masculine, rather it has taken the neuter gender of the noun
> > >"body" (SOMA) to which the meaning is "carried across" the verb. This "at
> > >once shows us that a figure is employed" and is not meant to be taken
> > >literally; it is a metaphor.
> > > Being a person who is but a "Little Greek" can anyone cite
> > >references/examples that would confirm/deny this law?
> Carl W. Conrad replied:
> I'd like to see evidence for such a law, too? I really doubt seriously there is any
> such "law" --or that the reader is given any sort of self-explanatory code to
> determine where the sense is literal and where it is metaphorical.
> james m smith replied:
> Is it reasonable to assume that no such "law" exists? Would it not be more
> profitable to exhibit obvious cases that would show its failure? Many
> clear examples can be given to support this "law" but clear examples to
> disprove it are elusive. Can anyone debunk this "law" citing unambiguous
> cases? Please.
What are your many clear examples please James (or anyone else who cares to defend
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