Re: Married Only Once: 1Tim.3:2

From: Theodore H Mann (
Date: Wed Feb 24 1999 - 09:15:35 EST

I've heard it said that this passage was intended to refute the practice
of (legal) bigamy. Can this be read in that way? Was it common at that
time for a man to have more than one wife at the same time?

Theodore "Ted" Mann

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