Re: Are Greek Verbs Not Marked Temporally Even In Indicative Clauses?

From: yochanan bitan (
Date: Fri Mar 05 1999 - 07:26:03 EST

(edward quoted carl:)
"...aorist participles in narrative sequence . . . do tend generally to
indicate action prior to the main narrative verb, and that this is probably

a matter of conventional idiomatic usage rather than of anything built-in
in either the aorist itself or in the aorist participle."

i'm comfortable with that assessment. it may reveal more than it intended.

conventional idiomatic usage is what we want.
otherwise, one would be in danger of grammatical etymologizing, and the
greek profession wouldn't want that.

if the rule works
> "more often than it should!"
then maybe it was acquiring contextual meanings and constraints above and
beyond its aspectual pedigree/etymology?

randall buth

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