Re: PISTIS in Josephus

From: Jeffrey B. Gibson (
Date: Thu Mar 18 1999 - 08:51:31 EST

"Carl W. Conrad" wrote:

> Inasmuch as Josephus writes in Rome and under a good deal of Roman
> (Flavian?) influence, it would hardly surprise me if Latin FIDES and its
> political associations has a good deal to do with the way he's using
> PISTIS. I hasten to add, however, that I haven't looked directly at how
> Josephus in fact DOES use PISTIS--I just would suspect that Roman thinking
> might have some bearing on his usage.


Is this argument reversable (if that's the correct term)? That is to say, is Paul's
use of PISTIS in Romans (or for that matter in any Epistle to a group within a Roman
polis) influenced by what he knew his Roman influenced *readers* would understand by
the term?


Jeffrey B. Gibson
7423 N. Sheridan Road #2A
Chicago, Illinois 60626

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