Date: Wed Apr 14 1999 - 07:38:17 EDT
Greetings, this is my first post to this fascinating list. And since it
is my first post, my apologies if this question has been answered
Is there any significance to the use of the infinitive middle,
APECESQAI, at Acts 15:20 and 29, rather than the imperative?
Grammatically speaking, is it because these verses are reporting a
command given, rather than giving a command?
Many thanks for your consideration of this.
Memra Institute for Biblical Research
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