Divine passives

From: Michael Abernathy (mabernat@cub.kcnet.org)
Date: Mon Apr 19 1999 - 15:25:48 EDT

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<DIV><FONT size=2>I am interested in the debate I found over the legitimacy of
the divine passive in some of the recent entries.&nbsp; But I was a little
confused by something.&nbsp; Most of the debate seemed to center around whether
the Greek language influenced the Jews enough for them to utilize this
convention.&nbsp; Blass and Debrunner in their <EM>A Greek Grammar of the New
Testament and Other Early Christian Literature</EM> attribute the origin of the
divine passive to the Aramaic.&nbsp; In fact, they claim it is typical for the
Aramaic to use the passive for the actions of divine beings.&nbsp; My knowlege
of Aramaic is insufficient to comment on this.&nbsp; Can someone enlighten


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