From: Moon-Ryul Jung (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed May 12 1999 - 11:19:58 EDT
> >HN EKEI ANQRWPOS EXHRAMMENHN ECWN THN CEIRA.
> Actually I think a different Greek colloquial idiom is in play here,
> one that I've observed frequently but that I don't recall ever seeing
> discussed in a grammar: the participle of ECW is frequently used in Greek
> to express the notion of accompaniment or association with the subject of a
> verb. That is why the most common idiomatic translation of Mark 3:1 is "And
> there was a man there WITH a withered hand." The instance of this that
> comes most readily to my mind is a sentence in a speech from
> pseudo-Demosthenes (KATA NEAIRAS) appearing in _Reading Greek_, the
> textbook I use to teach Beginning Attic. It is as follows:
> ... ALL' AFIKOMENOS AQHNAZE ASELGWS ECRHTO AUTHi KAI EPI TA DEIPNA ECWN
> AUTHN PANTACOI EPOREUETO ... " ... but upon arriving in Athens, he kept
> treating her abusively and would go anywhere to dinner parties with
> her." ECWN AUTHN is the expression I'm referring to.
> Here's another:
> ... SUNESKEUASATO PANTA TA FRUNIWNOS EK THS OIKIAS ... ECOUSA DE TAUTA
> PANTA ... APODIDRASKEI EIS MEGARA. " ... she gathered up everything of
> Phrynion from his house and ran away with them to Megara." In this
> instance the relevant expression is ECOUSA TAUTA PANTA.
Thanks, Carl. Finally, Mark 3.1 makes sense to me.
HN EKEI ANQRWPOS EXHRAMMENHN ECWN THN CEIRA.
Based on the data you provided, I would render it as
"There was there a man with his hand withered". (a)
My first attempt was to EXHRAMMENHN as attributive, and render it as
"There was there a man having the withered hand". (b)
But then the definite expression "THE withered hand" bothered me. So,
I thought "the withered hand" might refer to a particular kind of hand,
which would be expressed as "a withered hand" in English. If THN allows
this interpretation, then taking EXHRAMMENHN as attributive seems
What do you think?
Dept of Computer Science
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