Re: Dative Participle Luke 8:27

From: clayton stirling bartholomew (
Date: Sun May 16 1999 - 14:43:49 EDT

> Luke 8:27 starts out:
> I was tempted at first to call EXELQONTI DE AUTWi EPI THN GHN a dative
> absolute, but I discovered that no one agreed with me on this so I set
> about to try and figure out why not.
> I think perhaps the answer is connected with the absence of an object
> for hUPHNTHSEN. But I find AUTWi rather an unlikely candidate for the
> role of object since it is clearly tied to the participle by the case
> ending. If AUTWi is the object of hUPHNTHSEN then the participle
> construction would not be absolute.
> There must be a perfectly obvious answer to this which I am overlooking.
> What is it?

A quick glance at Matt 8:28 seems to settle this issue. In that context
AUTWi is the object of hUPHNTHSAN. So it would appear that AUTWi in Luke
8:27 is doing double duty. I know someone is going to say that this is a
perfectly normal way to do things in Attic Greek but it still causes me
to stop and ponder when I run into it in the NT.

Perhaps I still don't have this right, if not let me know.

Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062

--- B-Greek home page: You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [] To unsubscribe, forward this message to To subscribe, send a message to

This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:40:26 EDT