From: Jim West (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Jun 07 1999 - 12:59:35 EDT
At 12:55 PM 6/7/99 -0400, you wrote:
>This would seem to imply that the meaning of the Greek verb derives
fundamentally from Hebrew usage. I know we've had this out before, but the
difference of viewpoint persists.
I again would suggest that the writers of the NT were indeed influenced by
Hebrew concepts. It is hard to imagine otherwise.
Jim West, ThD
web page- http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
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