Re: Why an instantaneous imperfect in Mark 8:24?

From: Carl W. Conrad (
Date: Mon Jun 28 1999 - 19:54:50 EDT

At 4:56 PM -0400 6/27/99, yochanan bitan wrote:
>re: imperfect verbs of saying that appear
>the imperfect of verbs of saying is frequently used as a lead-in to a more
>definitive statement or action that will follow. the imperfect is being
>thematically demoted to a following aorist/perfective. this is a stylistic
>function of the the tense system that is missed by non-textlinguistic
>approaches. mk 8.25 is the more thematically dominant action.
>randall buth

Without knowing the least about textlinguistic approaches, I can see that
this is plausible; my impression is that other imperfect verbs also may
introduce a narrative sequence which proceeds in the aorist. But what I'd
really like to know is what you might recommend as a good introduction or
lead-in to textlinguistics as regards ancient Greek.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University
Summer: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243

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