1 peter 4:1,2

From: UpoXarin@aol.com
Date: Tue Jun 29 1999 - 22:40:24 EDT

I just have some questions about gramatical constructs in this passage. i am
stiudying it for a class at church. The first is about genitive absolutes.
Do they function like english nomative absolutes? My book on English grammar
said that an absolute modifies not one part in a sentence but the whole
sentence. Eg. "The foreman being absent, I was given the order". The
absolute "the foreman being absent" modifies the whole clause "i was given
the order" and just a part of it. Therefore, does the genitive absolute
"XRISTOU PAQONTOS" modify the rest of verse 1 and 2? Is it the cause of the
rest of Peter's exhortation? I just want to make sure that i am not reading
English grammar on to the Greek text.
        Second, I am having trouble with the phrase "hO PAQWN SARKI PEPAUTAI
hAMARTIAS". Any suggestions on the interpretation of this verse would gladly
be accepted offlist, but my main questionis about the articular participle.
Robertson and Wallace (author's of greek grammars) both contend that a
participle with the definite article suggests a general situation and does
not usually refer to a specific person. This would be an argument against
the referent of the participle being only Christ. Thanks a bunch.

Jonathan Brubaker

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