Pronouns Homer to Koine

From: clayton stirling bartholomew (c.s.bartholomew@worldnet.att.net)
Date: Sat Jul 10 1999 - 17:34:16 EDT


This question is going to be kind of vague since I haven't enough facts
to ask it specifically.

Working in the Iliad I notice that Homer has a nearly full set of 3d
person singular personal pronouns. When did these drop out of use? When
did AUTOS take their place? Was this already happening when Homer was
writing?

The aspect of this that caught my interest is gender. When you use AUTOS
as the third person personal pronoun you acquire inflection for gender.
I was not aware that Greek had at any time a genderless third person
personal pronoun.

Does someone want to state the obvious on this topic? I always need the
obvious pointed out since the obvious is what I am most likely to over
look.

Thanks.

Clay

--
Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062

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