Re: John 3:2

From: Carlton Winbery (
Date: Mon Aug 02 1999 - 15:42:59 EDT

>How is the nominative DIDASKALOS functioning in John 3:2?
>Rick Creighton.
Richard, I read both Carl's and Kevin's answer to this and they make good
sense, but I like to take a simpler route that produces the same result. I
like to see DIDASKALOS as in apposition to the subject of the verb
ELHLUQAS. A noun (or implied noun or pronoun) in any case can have another
noun (or noun substitute) in the same case in apposition. Hence, "We know
that you, a teacher, have come from God." It's like we do in English when
we say "this is my brother, Joe."

Dr. Carlton L. Winbery
Foggleman Professor of Religion
Louisiana College
Ph. 1 318 448 6103 hm
Ph. 1 318 487 7241 off

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