From: Paolo Villa (email@example.com)
Date: Sat Aug 07 1999 - 17:31:06 EDT
it's a little opinion but I think about the third question that
DIDONTOS is in genitive because its agreement not directly with KURIOU
IESOUS but with FLOGOS:
(this) "FLOX who gives EKDIDOSIN KTL..."
then , probably , this flame is a metaphor for Jesus, or God justice...
the expression " EN PURI FLOGOS " occurs 3 times in LXX:
Sir 8, 10
Sir 45, 19
Pss 12, 4
you can translate it simply with "with flame of fire" or "with flaming
so Vulgata: " in flamma ignis dantis..."
"nel fuoco ardente che farą vendetta"(IEP) = who will give revenge"
"nel fuoco ardente a fare vendetta" (CEI) = "to give revenge"
Thank you and sorry for eventual errors
Universitą Cattolica del Sacro Cuore
> >Finally, I am at a loss to explain why the participle DIDONTOS in 1:8 is
> >the genitive. My best guesses at this point are genitive absolute or
> >attraction to the preceding word, FLOGOS, which is in the genitive. I
> >uncertain as to the function of the participle. Based on the categories
> >identified by Wallace in Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, I believe that
> >is a dependent verbal participle. My two choices in this category are
> >adverbial (circumstantial) participle of means ("to repay . . . by
> >inflicting") or what Wallace calls attendant circumstance ("to repay . .
> >and inflict"). I tend to reject the latter based on the criteria Wallace
> >identifies for such participles.
> I would say that DIDONTOS is in the genitive because of its agreement with
> KURIOU IESOU. He will come "giving just punishment to . . ." This could be
> what Wallace calls attendent circumstance. Keep in mind that the noun that
> such a participle agrees with is the subject of the action of the
> Dr. Carlton L. Winbery
> Foggleman Professor of Religion
> Louisiana College
> Ph. 1 318 448 6103 hm
> Ph. 1 318 487 7241 off
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