Re: Translating Mark 9:35

From: Carl W. Conrad (
Date: Tue Aug 10 1999 - 12:50:44 EDT

It's my impression that Ray has sent to BibleTranslation a response to a
thread on B-Greek; I'm taking the liberty of forwarding it back there with
my response.

At 7:34 AM -0500 8/10/99, Ray Clendenen wrote:
>Bible Translation -
>Ray Clendenen@BSSBNOTES
>08/10/99 07:34 AM
>Prof. Conrad's note ("However, one of the more common Semitisms found in NT
>Koine is use of the
>future indicative FOR an imperative;") caught my attention because I had
>just read in Porter's _Idiom Book_ p. 44 that "although [the volitive use]
>of the future form is grequently analyzed as the result of Semitic
>influence, classical Greek parallels indicate that the most that can be
>argued here is that Semitic usage enhanced an already possible Greek
>Ray Clendenen
>Broadman & Holman

This may well be true; I'd like to see the evidence for it. My suspicion is
that it may be somewhat comparable to the recent melding together of the
senses of "you shall" and "you will"--which two phrases once had very
distinct meanings. What I'm curious to learn more about is whether this
alleged usage of the future in an imperatival sense antedates the
Hellenistic period. If someone has direct information on this, I'd like to
learn about it, but I'll try to find out what i can about it further

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University
Summer: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243 OR

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