Date: Thu Aug 12 1999 - 00:13:14 EDT
In a message dated 8/11/99 12:59:33 PM Pacific Daylight Time,
<< It would seem that if given the rules of Hebrew grammar are used
and they produce the action that Sharp's rule identifies, and the
the Gk. preserves what is being said in the Hebrew, then we would have
rule in the translated Gk. To say otherwise would seem to indicate that
not a construction in the Hebrew that creates this action. Does that seem
to you? >>
I do not believe an exhaustive study of Hebrew syntax has been done to the
extent that we can say there is a "mirror image" of Sharp's rule in Hebrew.
However, whether there is or not the fact remains that, as you say, Sharp's
rule would have been used in translation if in fact the translators accepted
it as a rule that should be used to prevent ambiguity in such theologically
significant passages as Proverbs 24:21, and others.
Thus, we cannot accept Sharp's rule as applicable in all cases, and the
context should play a significant role in our interpretation of any text, as
the syntax of the passage was not written in a vacuum; rather, it was meant
to be viewed in light of a larger sentence, paragraph, discourse, letter and
theology of the particular writer in question.
<< BTW in the message that was sent to you and Richard there was the Gk. text
sent in it, was it preserved or did in turn to html ?
in Christ -chris >>
No, unfortunately, it did not come through.
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