Date: Sat Aug 21 1999 - 12:32:53 EDT
If there is any time when one would expect an imperative to
be rendered, "let," or "please let," it would probably be in
imperatives directed toward God. In the Lord's Prayer, however,
translators consisting omit such verbiage.
If so, then what is the mandate for including "let" in imperatives
directed toward mere mortals? Is it not perhaps an uncalled for
attempt to be overly polite?
If we can say to God, "hallowed by Thy name ... Thy kingdom come,"
why shouldn't we render more 3rd person imperatives like
the NIV and NRSV do in 1 Cor 7:9, "they should marry"?
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