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From: Mark Markham (
Date: Tue Sep 14 1999 - 07:33:09 EDT


What I see here is like I proposed last week-- speak as in prophecy or
tongues etc. It is consistent with Paul's writings to Timothy not to allow
women to teach or usurp authority from the man. He seems to state it is not
a matter of custom but one or arranged order rank or authority. Why is it
a such problem to be honest with the text here in 1 Cor 14:34? And later in
this chapter he claims these were the commandments of the Lord. Not social
traditions, customs etc. The Greek poses no problem here. Could the problem
be reading things into the text?


Mark Markham
Heidelberg, Germany

----- Original Message -----
From: Carl W. Conrad <>
To: Biblical Greek <>
Cc: Biblical Greek <>
Sent: Tuesday, September 14, 1999 12:58 PM
Subject: Re: 1 Cor 14:34 -- LALEIN

> At 9:53 AM +0200 9/14/99, Blahoslav Číčel wrote:
> >Dne So, 11 z‡ż’ 1999 jste napsal(a):
> >> Colleagues:
> >
> >>
> >> Ande if Paul did write it, he really WAS a misogynist! (Women chatter;
> >> they interrupt services; their husbands are smarter than they are, and
> >> explain things at home; unmarried women will have to remain
> >
> >Was Paul misogynist or it was the society in Paul's time?
> >
> >I suppose that most of the women were illiterate or of poor education. It
> >not because of lack of intelligence but because of the circumstances. If
> >was true, then Paul might be reacting to the facts without any miso-what
> Frankly, I don't think this is any MORE true in general of women than of
> men in the congregation at the time; it would depend on where in the
> Mediterranean world one lived, probably also on a family's wealth and
> status, but women were admitted to the gymnasia in many areas. I don't
> think we can generalize too much about either status or education in
> Christian congregations to which Paul wrote, although Gerd Theissen, Wayne
> Meeks, and others too have helped to sketch some pictures of what elements
> of population may have been involved in them. What Paul says in 1 Cor
> 1:26-31 is loaded with rhetoric, but I don't think Paul could or would
> waxed eloquent on the absence of eloquence or learning among his converts
> had this not been essentially true. So I don't think education is a
> distinct differentiating factor between men and women in these
> congregations.
> (I should add that I'm satisfied that LALEIN does NOT mean "chatter" in 1
> Cor 14:34)
> Carl W. Conrad
> Department of Classics/Washington University
> One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
> Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
> WWW:
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