Re: John 6:29 & the Present Tense

From: Joe A. Friberg (
Date: Mon Oct 11 1999 - 01:18:28 EDT

----- Original Message -----
From: Steven Craig Miller <>
Sent: Sunday, October 10, 1999 8:41 PM

> Also, one might note that the variant reading at John 6:29 is PISTEUSHTE
> (aor. subj.) as opposed to PISTEUHTE (pres. subj.). If the aor. subj. is
> translated as "that you believe ..." (as it is in the NKJV), shouldn't the
> present subjunctive be translated differently? Or would one want to say
> that there is no real difference between the two variant readings?

1. Can you be sure that the NKJV was based on the aor. subj.? (I do not
recall the NKJV textual principles.)

2. There is a difference of nuance in the Gk: I might suggest the aor. subj.
be translated:
"that you should believe..."

The NKJV may have simply ignored the nuance in preference of the standard

Joe Friberg

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