Date: Mon Oct 11 1999 - 10:24:26 EDT
In a message dated 10/11/99 8:57:45 AM, email@example.com writes:
<< If the Matthean Jesus wanted to suggest that the act of adultery was a
punctiliar act as opposed to a linear act, why didn't he keep to the aorist
tense, why the switch to the present tense? The statement seems very clear
to me. The Greek verb translated as "divorces" is in the aorist tense
because it is viewed as a punctiliar act. The Greek verb translated as
"marries" is in the aorist tense because it is viewed as a punctiliar act.
But the verb translated as "lives in adultery" (or "commits adultery") is
in the present tense because it is viewed as a linear act. Why else the
switch to the present tense? >>
Your view of the aorist tense verbs seems to be correct, although I'm not
sure about the present tense verb. MOICATAI may be gnomic present, i.e., this
is generally, or always the case when someone divorces and remarries.
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