Re: Matt 19:9

Date: Mon Oct 04 1999 - 13:25:29 EDT

On Mon, 04 Oct 1999 03:20:47 PDT "Steve Puluka" <>
> >From:
> >To:
> >CC:
> >Subject: Re: Matt 19:9
> >Date: Sun, 3 Oct 1999 16:51:41 -0700
> >
> >
> >The question is, did the early church fathers understand the
> >MH EPI PORNEIA of Mt 19:9 as denoting preterition (as excluding
> >from consideration the case of PORNEIA) or as denoting the
> >negation, that is, if a man divorced his wife because of PORNEIA,
> >and remarried, then he did not commit adultery in so doing?
> >
> >I don't see anything in the translations cited below that suggests
> >anything other than the preterition view.
> >
> >Paul Dixon
> I'm not clear on this distinction, but perhaps we are on the same
> page. I read the Patristic evidence as permiting the divorce only for
> fornication, but not any further marriages for either party.

No, we are not on the same page. The preterition view says that the
MH EPI PORNEIA is simply indicating that the case of PORNEIA is
being excluded from consideration at this point and nothing said
or implied about such.

It might be rendered paraphrastically as: he who divorces his
wife (excluding the case of fornication, which see elsewhere for
discussion) and marries another commits adultery.

What many conclude, however, is that MH EPI PORNEIA suggests
or even demands an implied negational thought, such as:
he who divorces his wife because of or upon fornication and
marries another does not commit adultery.

The early church fathers seem definitely opposed to this line of
thinking. Your citations seem to confirm this. But, if they conclude
that divorce for fornication is justifiable, though not remarriage,
because of Mt 19:9, then they have gone beyond the preterition
view and still end up affirming an unstated negation, that is, that
divorce is justiable because of fornication.

Paul Dixon

> Beyond that I really can't speak to the grammer distinction on
> negation or exclusion. Could you elaborate on this please?

I hope I have.

Paul Dixon

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