Re: the anaphora of 1 John 3:5 & 8 & the subjunctive

From: Steven Craig Miller (
Date: Fri Oct 15 1999 - 09:56:05 EDT

To: Jay Adkins,

<< Furthermore, not all the translations that used the subjunctive force in
these verses are as old as Darby, which helped to confuse me even more.
1Joh 3:5 (NIV) "But you know that he appeared so that he might take away
our sins. And in him is no sin." 1Joh 3:8 (NKJV) "He who sins is of the
devil, for the devil has sinned from the beginning. For this purpose the
Son of God was manifested, that He might destroy the works of the devil." >>

I had suspected that such an idiom was archaic, but I wasn't absolutely for
sure. Perhaps I should have asked myself the last time I heard a father
tell a child the following: "Your Mother went to the grocery store so that
she might pick up some eggs," or anything even similar?

-Steven Craig Miller
Alton, Illinois (USA)

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