Re: the anaphora of 1 John 3:5 & 8 & the subjunctive

From: Jay Adkins (
Date: Fri Oct 15 1999 - 09:14:42 EDT

Carl wrote:

> It's always fascinated me that the hINA + subjunctive clause
> came eventually to supplant the morphologically distinct
> infinitive; thus the modern Greek infinitive is NA + the
> conjugated present or aorist subjunctive of a verb (NA
> PW, for instance is the 1st person infinitive of "say"--
> from what was once the Hellenistic hINA EIPW.

> In any case, "might" in those Darby version formulations does
> not express doubt as such; it's simply the obsolescent usage
> of the auxiliary verb "may" in a past tense contingency
> construction.

Thank you all very much for your responses. I was not aware of the changes
in modern Greek. Furthermore, not all the translations that used the
subjunctive force in these verses are as old as Darby, which helped to
confuse me even more.

1Joh 3:5 (NIV) But you know that he appeared so that he might take away our
sins. And in him is no sin.

1Joh 3:8 (NKJV) He who sins is of the devil, for the devil has sinned from
the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that He
might destroy the works of the devil.

Sola Gratia,
Always Under Grace!

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