Date: Fri Oct 15 1999 - 13:07:46 EDT
On Fri, 15 Oct 1999 09:34:50 PDT "Steve Puluka" <firstname.lastname@example.org>
> >From: TonyProst@aol.com
> >You have missed the Jerusalem Bible which someone cited earlier,
> >which seems to say that not only is porneia adultery, but also
> >after divorce.
> The Jerusalem Bible renders this verse:
> Now I say this to you: the man who divorces his wife-- I am not
> speaking of fornication -- and marries another, is guilty of adultery.
Yes, I like this translation very much. It avoids the problematic
"except" (no lexical basis) and the consequent charge of misleading
the reader into thinking the text is saying something it is not, that
is, if a man divorces his wife for fornication and remarries, then
he is not committing adultery himself.
> This seems to support the sense of putting aside the case of
> adultery rather than making an exception for adultery. More poor
> head still hurts trying to puzzle out the practical difference between
> exclusion and except. But I think I am starting to turn the corner.
> Perhaps if those with differing points of veiw on the issue could
> offer their own or their preffered translation of the verse I could see
> the distinction better?
The only alternative translation you will find, I believe, will
include the word "except," inasmuch as all other interpretations
(and so translations, unfortunately) presuppose an inferred
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