Re: Matthew 19:9, mng of PORNEIA

From: Jeffrey B. Gibson (
Date: Sat Oct 16 1999 - 13:22:18 EDT

Steven Craig Miller wrote:

> To: Jeffrey B. Gibson,
> I'm not suggesting that "prostitution" was a real problem, only that the
> term PORNEIA was used as an abusive metaphor. This to me, if I may be
> allowed to speak so bold, is a point which I believe most scholars have missed!
> JBG: << I am still inclined to see that what Jesus is saying here is that
> even the reason that ordinarily, and according to the Mosaic Law, was
> recognized as grounds for divorce, is not to be considered so, i.e., that
> there is no cause for which a man may divorce his wife PORNEIA included. >>
> So, how would you translate Mt 19:9?

If PORNEIA does not refer to incestuous relationships, I would translate
Matt. 19:9
as "If any man divorces his wife for any reason -- the grounds of
notwithstanding, he ...."

Any other translation, except the one that envisages Jesus speaking of
which violate Jewish conceptions of consanguinity, make Matthew
contradict what is
said on the issue in GMark. We also have to take into account whether or
not in GMatt
the opponents of Jesus are trying to get Jesus to utter a damning
comment on the
marriage of Herod to Herodias, and thus get him into the same sort of
trouble with
Herod as JtheB found himself in.



Jeffrey B. Gibson
7423 N. Sheridan Road #2A
Chicago, Illinois 60626

--- B-Greek home page: You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [] To unsubscribe, forward this message to To subscribe, send a message to

This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:40:42 EDT