From: Carl W. Conrad (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Oct 14 1999 - 05:49:05 EDT
At 8:30 PM -0700 10/13/99, clayton stirling bartholomew wrote:
>George Goolde wrote:
>>. . .
>> But as Carl also pointed out in another post, GAR always has the
>> force of explaining what preceded.
>Always is a very inclusive word. Does GAR really always have this force?
I'm from Missouri, Clay; can you show me where it DOESN'T have an implicit,
"That's because ..." sense?
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
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