Re: Present Tense

From: dixonps@juno.com
Date: Wed Oct 20 1999 - 18:01:41 EDT


On Wed, 20 Oct 1999 11:30:14 -0700 "Dale M. Wheeler"
<dalemw@teleport.com> writes:

<snip>
>
> Fourthly, Paul Dixon accuses me of letting my theology rule my grammar.
> That was a cheap shot, Paul; but since we are DTS brothers, I forgive
> you... (-:

Now, now, I didn't exactly accuse you of doing anything. I seriously
was wondering out loud if the cart was pulling the horse or if the
horse was pulling the cart. Someone has recently warned us against
eiosgesis. I was just wondering if this 20th century grammatical
insight (whether it is your's or not) was coming from an inductive
study or if it is the result of looking for a way to harmonize certain
passages with one's theology.

Nevertheless, I did feel badly after sending the post, and your
response only confirmed my suspicions. I am sorry. Thanks for
the gracious brotherly forgiveness.

> As I said, I really don't care how you end up interpreting 1John
> or any passage for that matter; I'm really just trying to have
> a discussion about the pro's and con's of assigning a
> progressive/linear/imperfective/internal aspectual nuance to the
> Present form. BTW, unless I miss my guess, I. Howard Marshall did not
> study under Zane Hodges--I suspect that he doesn't even know who Zane
> is... (-;

No, but he could have been laboring under the same theological
restraints.

Would you like to share your explanation of 1 Jn 3:6-10? I'd be
interested.

Thanks,

Paul Dixon

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