John 3:32

From: david reigle (
Date: Tue Nov 16 1999 - 11:35:34 EST

Dear Friends,

I am wondering about the meaning of the tenses in John 3:32
I don't know what to make (if anything) of the contrast of the
perfect with the aorist here, neither relative time nor aspect seem to
make sense to me here. Some people I have read claim a
confusion of tenses occurred here. Was that a common thing?
Were the Greek speakers of this time becoming "lax" in the way
they used their tenses, or was the author making some distinction
by using these tenses. Thank you for your help.
Dave Reigle
Elizabethtown, Pa.

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