From: Eamonnn White (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Nov 15 1999 - 21:25:43 EST
"The Jesus Papyrus" by Thiede & D'Ancona, P.117
In an effort to prove that Jesus spoke Greek the Authors use the scene
where Jesus spoke with the Syro-Phoenician woman:
hH DE GUNH HN hELLHNIS
This they translate as "The woman was Greek-speaking"
My dictionary gives hELLHNISTI as "in the Greek language".
My question is :
Are the Authors correct or is it a 'liberal' rather than a literal
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