Re: I John 3:2 and I John 2:28

From: Ilvgrammta@aol.com
Date: Thu Dec 16 1999 - 13:18:40 EST


In a message dated 99-12-16 12:14:31 EST, Lynn R-C writes:

<< John 3:2 has a third class conditional clause which most translations
 render "when." The only exception I found on my Logos software was the
 American Standard Version. I used the same software to search the N.T., in
 the NASV. I found I John, 3:2 and 2:28 to be the only two times in which
 "ean" was rendered "when." Is there any grammatical reason why so many
 translations give "ean" the meaning "when" ? Or, might their reasons be
 theological?
 
 Thank you in advance, Lynn R.-C. >>

Dear Lynn,

Robert A. Young has the following:

"EAN can be used as a temporal conjunction to convey a future event that is
contemporaneous with another future event. 1 John 3:2 (We know that when
[EAN] he appears, we shall be like him; cf. John 12:32; Heb. 3:7; 1 John
2:28)" (Young, p. 184).

While I agree with Young about the rendering of EAN in 1 John 2:28; 3:2, I
really do not think his examples are very helpful here. Note especially Heb.
3:7.

Another comment is given by Steven. M. Baugh in his First John Reader:

"Normally, EAN introduces a condition in the future: EAN FANERWQHi, "If he
should appear." In this verse, however, John is not expressing doubt as to
whether the Lord will appear. In the common use of Greek (found also in the
LXX), EAN doubled in function with the indefinite temporal marker hOTAN,
"whenever" or "when," as here and in 3:2. The phrase should then be
translated "when he appears." Remember that a subjunctive phrase does not
necessarily communicate doubt about the fulfillment of an event, but that the
author does not know precisely when it will happen" (p. 42).

I hope this helps,

Edgar Foster

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