Re: KJV vs AV

From: Steven Craig Miller (scmiller@www.plantnet.com)
Date: Sun Dec 19 1999 - 14:33:27 EST


<x-flowed>To: Cindy Smith,

<< I believe "the Word" in Hebrews 4:12 refers to Jesus as the Word of
God, just as in the Gospel of John. >>

I personally would find such an interpretations of Hebrews 4:12 to be
"forced." At the very least, there doesn't seem to anything in the
immediate context of Hebrews 4:12 which suggests that this author had Jesus
explicitly in mind. As for the Johannine gospel, the facts are quite
against such a facile interpretation. For example, the Johannine Jesus
says: "I do know him [God] and I keep his word" (Jn 8:55). If for John the
God's LOGOS was Jesus, how could the Johannine Jesus keep it? Another
example, the Johannine Jesus says: "Whoever does not love me does not keep
my words; and the word that you hear is not mine, but is from the Father
who sent me" (Jn 14:24). Again, the Johannine Jesus speaks as if God's
LOGOS is different from himself! Nowhere does John's gospel simply identify
Jesus as God's LOGOS. The difference of interpretation of John 1:14 is
rooted in the fact that some take God's LOGOS as a individual, while others
(such as myself) take God's LOGOS in the Johannine prologue as an
instrumental force.

To bring us back to the grammar of Hebrew 4:12, while some might take hO
LOGOS TOU QEOU as a possessive genitive of a personified LOGOS, thus "God's
Word"; I would take it as a subjective genitive meaning "the word from
God" (without necessarily equating it with the scriptures as such).
Grammatically there are a number of interpretations of the phrase hO LOGOS
TOU QEOU which one can only resolved through an exegetical interpretation
of the book of Hebrews.

-Steven Craig Miller
Alton, Illinois (USA)
scmiller@www.plantnet.com
Disclaimer: "I'm just a simple house-husband (with no post-grad degree),
what do I know?"

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