From: Grant (grant@cajun.net)
Date: Tue Dec 21 1999 - 23:27:59 EST
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<DIV><FONT size=2>Luke 23:43</FONT><FONT size=2> "KAI EIPEN AUTW AMHN SOI LEGO,
SHMERON MET EMOU ESH EN TW PARADEISW"</FONT></DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV>It places the "comma" before SHMERON which give a time that the
evildoer would enjoy the paradise promised (regardless of the location or the
inhabitants of that paradise).</DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV>Yet, another translation that I once stumbled upon placed the "comma" after
SHMERON which then gives a time of the statement and leaves the evild doer's
enjoyment of paradise indefinite--just a future promise.</DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV>The footnote claimed that the original Greek had no comma placed here
although the Westcott and Hort text does.</DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV>My question is simple: "Does anyone have access to the oldest documents to
check this?"</DIV>
<DIV>Has anyone researched this before? It seems that the simple placement
of the comma is very important. Does this translation have any merit in
deviating from the majority based on this understanding?</DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV>Sincerely,</DIV>
<DIV>Grant Polle</DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV>Louisiana, USA</DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV>"It's not the amount of Greek in your life, but it's the amount of life in
your Greek."</DIV>
<DIV>- anonymous quote by a compulsive Greeker (me)<BR></DIV>
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