From: Grant (grant@cajun.net)
Date: Mon Dec 20 1999 - 19:39:08 EST
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<DIV><FONT size=2> While reading the chapter of
Philippians 2, I noticed that verse 6 varies significantly from translation to
translation.</FONT></DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV><FONT size=2>KJV for example reads: "Who, being in the form of God, thought
it not robbery to be equal with God."</FONT><FONT size=2></FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT size=2>
<DIV><FONT size=2>WE: "He was in every way like God. Yet he did not think that
being equal to God was something he must hold on to. "</FONT></DIV></FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT size=2><FONT size=2>YLT "</FONT><FONT size=2>who, being in the form
of God, thought [it] not robbery to be equal to God, "</FONT></FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT size=2></FONT> </DIV>
<DIV><FONT size=2>NIV reads, "Who, being in very nature God, did not consider
equality with God something to be grasped,"</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT size=2>Darby "who, subsisting in the form of God, did not esteem it
an object of rapine to be on an equality with God; "</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT size=2>NASB "who, although He existed in the form of God, did not
regard equality with God a thing to be grasped</FONT></DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV>"hOS EN MORFH QEOU hYPARCHON OUCH hARPAGMON hHGHSATO TO EINAI ISA
QEO."</DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV>It seems that two interpretations result. </DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV> On one hand, Jesus does not attempt equality." This seems to agree
with opponents of the Trinity. </DIV>
<DIV> Yet, on the other hand, KJV's translation and others shows Jesus as
not considering his equality as robbery or that his equality was
wrong. </DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV> Which of the two translations agrees more with what the bible
writer intended?</DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV>Sincerely,</DIV>
<DIV>Grant Polle</DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV>Lousiana, USA</DIV>
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