From: Theodore H Mann (thmann@juno.com)
Date: Thu Dec 30 1999 - 08:24:51 EST
If distinctions of meaning exist between terms in Greek, those
distinctions should be reflected in English (or any other receptor
language).
Ted
Dr. Theodore "Ted" H. Mann
thmann@juno.com
http://www.homestead.com/ChristianResourcesLinks/index.html
http://www.homestead.com/eLOGOS/index.html
http://www.homestead.com/eIXQUS/index.html
On Wed, 29 Dec 1999 22:23:09 -0600 "Grant" <grant@cajun.net> writes:
> B-Greek,
>
> I have noticed for many years that some bible translators render
> Hades,
> Tartarus, and Gehenna all by the one word "hell."
>
> Despite theological meanings that we each may assign, doesn't it
> seem
> logical that a difference should be illustrated? Is it a scholarly
> opinion(preference) or rather incorrect to assign one word to 3
> Greek words?
>
> Toward Truth Always,
> Grant Polle
>
> USA
>
>
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