From: Ilvgrammta@aol.com
Date: Tue Jan 04 2000 - 20:10:01 EST
In a message dated 00-01-04 17:56:43 EST, cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu writes:
<< Wherefore, I still must say
that the use of the plural in this situation is not at all uncommon (even
in alternation with a first-person singular), enough so that one needs to
show some convincing evidence that there's a different reason for use of
the first-plural here in 1 John than customary usage >>
Dear Carl,
Thanks for your input. I am inclined to think that we have a literary
(epistolary) plural in 1 John 1:4. You have answered my question about the
prevalence of this usage and this provides me with a nice starting point for
research. Other candidates for this convention seem to be 1 Thess. 2:18; 3:1,
2 (cf. 3:5).
Edgar Foster
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