From: Grant (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Jan 04 2000 - 18:13:58 EST
To Steven Miller:
>>>I would strongly disagree. It is simply not relevant what scriptures
might have or might not have read. In fact, one need not even assume that
the historical Jesus could even read! The point which you fail to grasp is
that when one translates Matthew's gospel, one is supposed to be
translating what MATTHEW wrote! >>>
I could most certainly find the relevancy of what scriptures Jesus used!
Theologically or historically, they both agree on the need.
As Solomon Landers pointed out: "We do not have the original of Matthew's
gospel, in either Hebrew (as some early church writers mentioned) or Greek."
Hence, translating Matthew's gospel primarily according to the extant text
would be an injustice to Matthew himself if his original Gospel said
otherwise and were unavailable to prove it. One should take in
consideration what version of scripture Jesus used. After all, someone who
quoted scriptures as Jesus did so frequently could hardly remember so many
quotations from his hearing alone, and he must have consulted the Hebrew
Scriptures quite frequently (even from an historical standpoint). Jesus
would have most likely used Yahweh which would have sounded a "familiarity"
to any Jew. So most likely, Matthew would have recorded the NAME in his
Gospel at LEAST once if Jesus had spoken it, but as mentioned before, it can
not be proven from Matthew's originals since they are unavailable.
My Point: Faithfullness to Matthew's text is not dependent on the verbatim
translation of its extant manuscripts. Being the case, an examination of
Jesus' sources for quoting scriptures would be most enlightening to us and
would help discern what Matthew actually wrote.
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