From: Carlton Winbery (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Tue Feb 01 2000 - 18:58:00 EST
>In a message dated 1/31/2000 7:25:39 PM Central Daylight Time,
> What is the difference between BC/AD and BCE/CE? For example, I have read
> that the Romans destroyed Jerusalem in 70 AD. Yet, other texts say 70 CE.
> Is it a word preference or an important distinction? If so, is it important
> to use the distinction?
>Since B.C. and A.D both refer to Christ, some have taken to referring to the
>same dates as BCE = Before the Common Era and CE = Common Era. It's a
>politically correct thing not to offend other faiths. I'll continue to use
>BC and AD since he is my Lord even if I am somewhat left-wing.
This is the direction I feared this might go. Knowing some really good
archaeologists in Israel like Amihai Mazar, I have no desire to pressure
him or others to use the language of Christians. I consider using
terminology like before common era and common era an excellent way of
communicating with others.
I think that everything that can give light to this subject has been said
when we acknowledge that B.C.E. = B.C. and C.E. = A.D. If you don't like
the more modern terms then don't use them, but give us the privilege of
deciding for ourselves. So I would ask that this thread be dropped. I see
nothing to be gained by continuing it.
Dr. Carlton L. Winbery
Foggleman Professor of Religion
Ph. 1 318 448 6103 hm
Ph. 1 318 487 7241 off
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