Re: Origen on Luke 1:1

From: Daniel Ria–o (
Date: Fri Feb 04 2000 - 18:01:50 EST

Clayton Stirling Bartholomew wrote:
>The only reason I bring this up is that this illustrates a common
>problem in lexical semantics. The problem is this:
>Assuming that EPICEIREW appears regularly in contexts where failure,
>insufficiency or evil intent are also present. Does this give us any
>justification to conclude that EPECEIREW in these contexts includes a
>semantic component that includes failure, insufficiency or evil intent?
>The solution to this question, if it can be obtained and clearly stated
>would put an end to a lot of seemingly pointless argument about the
>meaning of words.
>What is the solution and how can it clearly be stated?

        In a pure abstract consideration, I think the question goes far
beyond lexical semantics to become a case of the problem of induction, and
about it I don't feel like I can state things clearer that Popper in "The
Logic of Scientific Discovery". As a practical matter, you know the way:
first you need to check every instance (or as much data as you can) of
EPIXEIRE/W in the best possible editions, discuss it, and come to a
subjective conclusion based the honest consideration of insufficient data,
admitting that some times the weight given to some testimonies upon others
is largely an open question. Obviously, such procedure will never put an
end to discussions on difficult points of semantics!

Daniel Ria–o Rufilanchas
Madrid, Espa–a

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