From: Jonathan Robie (Jonathan.Robie@SoftwareAG-USA.com)
Date: Mon Feb 14 2000 - 19:49:27 EST
<x-flowed>The following verse threw me for a loop:
John 1:28 TAUTA EN BHQANIAi EGENETO PERAN TOU IORDANOU, hOPOU HN hO IWANNHS
This can't be the same Bethany mentioned elsewhere in John, e.g.
John 11:18 HN DE hH BEQANIA EGGUS TWN hIEROSOLUMWN, hWS APO STADIWN DEKAPENTE.
In fact, although the article doesn't seem to affect most translations,
shouldn't John 11:18 say something like "Now this was the Bethany near
Jerusalem, about fifteen stades away"? John seems to be aware of two
different Bethanys, and the phrase HN DE hH BEQANIA seems designed to
distinguish them. Or am I misinterpreting this?
Is the Bethany by the Jordan attested anywhere?
-- Jonathan Robie R&D Fellow, Software AG Jonathan.Robie@SoftwareAG-USA.com
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