Re: Gender-specific or gender-inclusive?

From: Wayne Leman (
Date: Tue Feb 22 2000 - 23:46:16 EST

George replied:

>I can only state that there are many today who are WILFULLY IGNORANT of the
>meaning of words. If they choose to quibble about the use of the word
>they will undoubtedly quibble over anything. Apparently they think that
>Thomas Jefferson only thought males were equal (". . . all men are created
>equal. That they are endowed by their creator . . ."). I'm certain that
>many did think that in those days, but I'm far from certain that this was
>Jefferson's position -- he was a rather singular individual.

How long ago did Tom write that, George? "Man" was an inclusive word then.
It no longer is for many, many speakers of English. And they are not
"ignorant" of the meaning of words. They use words as they mean to them
today. English has changed quite a lot since Jefferson's time, and it will
continue changing in the future.


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