From: VINCE ENDRIS (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Tue Feb 22 2000 - 22:55:21 EST
<x-flowed>i appreciate the challenge posed to "word" as the translation of LOGOS in
John 1:1. i agree that the english 'word' does not carry the same idea that
was being presented in the gospel. it seems to me that LOGOS in this
instance can not be directly compared to other uses of it in the new
testament. the reason being that it is not simply one speaking or something
being said (not that i am suggesting that all uses in the new testament
i think it would be very useful to know if these first few verses constitute
a hymn or short poem and from where that derived. if this is not from the
original author, then we might be certain that it was not meant to talk
about or be related to jesus. for instance, if this prologue (which i think
there is good evidence of it originated as a hymn) finds it origin in stoic
philosophy, i see no reason not to translated it as 'reason' or even 'the
action of god' or 'the giver of purpose'. i suppose even if it is original
by the author (and i'm sure even if it is not) it can fulfill two purposes:
one to capture the hellenistic thinking of action and purpose and reason,
and two to point the reader to gen. 1.
either way, i find it hard to find a substitute for the translation.
however, i also realize that leaving it as 'word' might create problems.
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