Date: Tue Feb 22 2000 - 23:15:16 EST
On the other hand, since we do have it attached to the Gospel of John, it
is difficult to overlook its canonical shape and render it as if it had no
connection to John's work regarding Jesus at all.....
On Tue, 22 Feb 2000, VINCE ENDRIS wrote:
> i appreciate the challenge posed to "word" as the translation of LOGOS in
> John 1:1. i agree that the english 'word' does not carry the same idea that
> was being presented in the gospel. it seems to me that LOGOS in this
> instance can not be directly compared to other uses of it in the new
> testament. the reason being that it is not simply one speaking or something
> being said (not that i am suggesting that all uses in the new testament
> include that).
> i think it would be very useful to know if these first few verses constitute
> a hymn or short poem and from where that derived. if this is not from the
> original author, then we might be certain that it was not meant to talk
> about or be related to jesus. for instance, if this prologue (which i think
> there is good evidence of it originated as a hymn) finds it origin in stoic
> philosophy, i see no reason not to translated it as 'reason' or even 'the
> action of god' or 'the giver of purpose'. i suppose even if it is original
> by the author (and i'm sure even if it is not) it can fulfill two purposes:
> one to capture the hellenistic thinking of action and purpose and reason,
> and two to point the reader to gen. 1.
> either way, i find it hard to find a substitute for the translation.
> however, i also realize that leaving it as 'word' might create problems.
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