Date: Wed Feb 23 2000 - 17:47:59 EST
In a message dated 2/23/2000 5:19:55 PM Central Daylight Time,
How could Jesus, talking about morals, imply that if I don’t like my wife I
can divorce her and SHE be guilty of adultery??? Wouldn't it be more
likely that the passive word «MOICEUQHNAI» is to show that she is
victimized by his decision? It is like: He divorces her and she is
“adulterated” by him. Doesn’t that make more sense??
This was a bit of a puzzle to me too. There is one thing, however, that
changes the significance of the entire passage. That is the one word POIEI.
She may commit adultery (in the legal sense of the term), but he is the
cause. Who bears the responsibility?
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