From: Mark Markham (email@example.com)
Date: Sat Feb 26 2000 - 15:56:12 EST
I agree with your observations:
> There is a kind of circularity of argument that crops up all the time in
> discussions of lexical semantics. The argument runs, signifier X never
> points to signified Y in corpus Z, therefor this instance of signifier X
> which is in corpus Z cannot point to signified Y.
I guess my question is one of preponderance of evidence. Do the NT writers
(esp. Paul) seem to limit the use of this word to believers only? Would this
be the linguistic exception?
Secondly, the use of PISTA in a verbal fashion seems to mean believing as
the more modern translations bear out. Are there any clues in the context
that I have missed? Also what would the object of the belief be? Or are no
answers to be found?
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