From: Carl W. Conrad (email@example.com)
Date: Mon Mar 06 2000 - 09:24:33 EST
At 6:48 PM -0500 3/4/00, Dmitriy Reznik wrote:
>Could you help me to understand if NOMOQETEW in Heb 8:6 can mean "to be
>given as a law" in passive voice. I found this idea in a book of David
>Stern "Messianic Manifesto". It says:
>"If the subject matter of the letter... were, say, Greek law, or the
>Roman Senate, it would be appropriate to translate this word as "enacted,
>established, legislated", that is, "put" or "placed as law".But in the
>letter to these Messianic Jews, the word nomos ... always means Torah
>specifically, never legislation in general. Moreover, the only other
>appearance of NENOMOQETHTAI in the New Testament is a few verses back, at
>... 7:11, where it can only refer to the giving of the Torah at Sinai.
>But now the work Yeshua has been given to do is far superior to theirs,
>just as the covenant he mediates is better. For this covenant has been
>given as Torah on the basis of better promises."
>Tell me please if it is true, and if yes, why nobody translates this word
>here in this way.
Heb 8:6 NUNI DE DIAFORWTERAS TETUCEN LEITOURGIAS, hOSWi KAI KREITTONOS
ESTIN DIAQHKHS MESITHS, hHTIS EPI KREITTOSIN EPAGGELIAIS NENOMOQETHTAI.
I don't know whether this is an adequate explanation or not, but it appears
to me that "Covenant and Law" may well be thought of as a single divine
gift to Israel, a hendiadys or expression of a single notion through two
words, so that the writer of Hebrews didn't think it unnatural to use the
verb NOMOQETEW of the covenant by metonymy. Is a more complicated
Carl W. Conrad Department of Classics/Washington University One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018 Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649 firstname.lastname@example.org WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
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