From: Garrett B Trott (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Mar 08 2000 - 17:02:02 EST
On Wed, 08 Mar 2000 14:55:40 +0000 "Maurice A. O'Sullivan"
>Looking at 1 Peter 3, in Greek and English, I notice that the printed
>editions of both the NRSV and the NJB, choose to follow the layout of
>27 in indenting -- and italicizing -- vv. 10-12, as befits a Psalm
>But when it comes to vv. 18-19, neither English version makes any
>typographical distinction, whereas N/A 27 again indents ( without
>italicization, this time ).
>It's only a small point, but have you any idea why N/A should indent
Just an idea, but some scholars see a creed-like formula present in these
verses, similar to what is in 1 Timothy 3:16. N/A indents it similar to
how they indent 1 Timothy 3:16, since the original audience may have
perhaps seen it as a "kind-of quotation."
Hope that helps,
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