Re: 1Pet.1:17

Date: Sun Mar 19 2000 - 12:35:17 EST

In a message dated 3/19/2000 10:27:10 AM Central Daylight Time, writes:

 PATERA has no article. So can it be a direct object? And can we translate
 "a father" about G-d?

Our language about God is filled with anthropomorphisms. He's a father, a
judge, a king, a husband. These (at least in my opinion) are not to be taken
literally. Since we cannot experience God directly as we do other "things"
in the universe, we speak in terms of that which we know. Is it imperfect?
Of course. The Greeks spoke of ZEUS PATER (from which linguistically is
derived Roman Jupiter). It is also not unknown in the OT to speak of God as
Father -- cf. Is. 63

15Look down from heaven and see,
>From Your holy and glorious height!
Where is Your zeal, Your power?
Your yearning and Your love
Are being withheld from us!
16Surely You are our Father:
Though Abraham regard us not,
And Israel recognize us not,
You, O Lord, are our Father;

Tanakh, The Holy Scriptures, (Philadelphia, Jerusalem: Jewish Publication
Society) 1985.

End of sermon.

Regarding the Greek -- a direct object does not require an article, but may
have one. I assume your question is regarding why one would speak of God as
"a Father" rather than as "the Father" or "our Father." My impression is
that he is speaking of a class -- the class of those called "father" who are
impartial judges examining their children's deeds. Rather than that
conception he states that the addressees were freed from bondage to their


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