Re: Was: "a question from a novice"

From: Eric S. Weiss (
Date: Tue Mar 21 2000 - 10:32:04 EST

As I suggested in an earlier post on this subject, which may have been
overlooked, the author of GJohn seems to like to use synonymous words,
without necessarily implying a distinction in meaning. I noted the ones in
John 21. In John 6, we have ESQIW/FAGW and TRWGW (though in this case TRWGW
may serve to intensify the meaning of ESQIW). Paul at times uses GINWSKW
and OIDA interchangeably, it seems. I think we have much the same in
English where two or more words are in current popular usage and mean
basically the same thing.

And ... the other post of mine in which I reference D.A. Carson's remarks
in EXEGETICAL FALLACIES does give an etymological/historical explanation
for why AGAPAW and FILEW coexisted, even as near-synonyms.

On 03/21/00, "Mike Sangrey <>" wrote:
> Summing up, if the people of 1st century koine needed both words,
> then there must be some way to make them distinct. However, that
> does NOT imply the distinction in every context, nor even in most.
> But, there would need to be some distinction somewhere, else two
> words are not needed where one will suffice.
> --
> Mike Sangrey
> Landisburg, Pa.
> There is no 'do' in faith, everywhere present within it is 'done'.

Eric Weiss
"What I know only reinforces what I don't know"

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