From: Dmitriy Reznik (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Mar 27 2000 - 18:28:49 EST
> I am afraid that my question about 1Cor 1:24 was not quite clear.
> question was: does the phrase "G-d's power and G-d's wisdom"
> Jesus ([We preach] Messiah who is the power of God, and the wisdom
> God) OR Paul's message about Him ([We preach] about Messiah AS the
> of God, and AS the wisdom of God).
> I thought I was fairly clear in my translation
> 24 But to those who are called (both Jews and Greeks) Christ is
> God’s power
> and God’s wisdom
I have a problem with this translation, because in Greek text Christ, as
well as G-d's power and G-d's wisdom, are in Accusative. It means Christ
is not the subject in this sentence, but an object of Paul's preaching.
Verse 24 continues v.23.
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