Re: 1Cor 1:24

From: Carl W. Conrad (
Date: Tue Mar 28 2000 - 06:00:06 EST

At 10:02 PM -0500 3/27/00, Dmitriy Reznik wrote:
>On Mon, 27 Mar 2000 19:39:36 -0600 "Harold R. Holmyard III"
><> writes:
>> Dear Dmitriy,
>> If you translate that Paul preaches Christ as God's power, then
>> earlier you would have to translate that he preaches Christ as a
>> scandal
>> and as foolishness. The idea is probably not that Paul preached that
>> Christ
>> is a scandal, but that Jews heard Paul that way.
>> Sincerely,
>> Harold Holmyard
>Thank you so much! I think it really is the key I have looked for.
>But what about CRISTON ESTAURWMENON? Can't we translate it "we preach
>Messiah AS crucified"?

Grammatically that is correct: i.e. the participle ESTAURWMENON is
predicative to KHRUSSOMEN, but I think it might be argued that CRISTON
ESTAURWMENON is a sort of indirect discourse with a participle such as one
more normally sees with verbs of perception, so that the sense is "We
preach THAT Christ has been crucified." This would also be very similar to
a common Latin construction whereby a noun and a perfect passive participle
in agreement with it function together much like a Hellenistic Greek
articular infinitive, as in this instance TO CRISTON ESTAURWSQAI, so that
the phrase could even by translated "the crucifixion of Christ." It may
seem bold to suggest these alternative ways of understanding the grammar of
this part of the verse, but I think the intended content is actually
identical no matter which way you explain it grammatically--and it may be
that the quibbling is more over the proper way to put it into the target
language than over what the Greek actually means.


Carl W. Conrad Department of Classics/Washington University One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018 Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649 WWW:

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